I heard someone say this and wanted to know if it's true.
2007-03-06 23:52:29 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Travel ➔ Asia Pacific ➔ Philippines
As far as I know, No. While Philippines has been under the rule of Spain for more than 300 years, Filipinos were never considered Spanish citizens even during the Spanish rule. Filipinos were called indios to their face and did not have the same rights as the ruling Spanish class. Even learning the language was only a privilege (not a right) allowed to just the moneyed few.
2007-03-07 23:11:33 · answer #1 · answered by arienne321 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Until 1946, the Philippines was an American colony and before that it was Spanish...On July 4, 1946 the Philippines became independent from the United States.
More about the history of that country, go to:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Philippines
2007-03-07 07:55:38 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 1⤋
well, we filipinos were under the Spanish's rule for 333 years if that helps...
2007-03-07 09:10:21 · answer #3 · answered by Rumba 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes but that was during the spanish domination in the philippines. and we also had divorce before, that happened during the spaniards time too but for a very short period only.
2007-03-07 11:34:06 · answer #4 · answered by warrior is a child 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
we were forced to be Spanish Citizens under their disgusting rule, made us recite their anthems, etc... Anyway, that was the past.. We don't care much these days.
2007-03-07 08:02:23 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋