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2007-03-06 23:39:17 · 4 answers · asked by samuelinho_8 1 in Society & Culture Royalty

4 answers

Get a book, concerning the old history of Spain and here you will get the exact answer to your question. Do not be lazy to search

2007-03-06 23:45:25 · answer #1 · answered by Jesus M 7 · 0 0

there was no offical recognized king before 1479. If you take teh year 1479 as the start of the spanish kingdom, then here is a break down

* in 1479, when Ferdinand, already King Consort of Castile as husband of Isabel I of Castile, inherited the Kingdom of Aragon at his father John II of Aragon's death. However, after this, the kingdoms shortly became separate, as Joanna of Castile and her husband Philip the Handsome inherited Castile in 1504, but Aragon remained Ferdinand's; he even married again and had he produced a son, that son would have taken precedence in Aragon and kept that country separate in the future.

* in 1516, when the future Emperor Charles V became the King of Aragon (after his grandfather Ferdinand) and guardian as well as co-king of Castile, in conjunction with his mother Joanna who was incapable to rule. However, the old Hispania was not united, as Portugal remained independent. And in Castile, Charles was not the sole monarch, only in Aragon. It has been reported that in a coinage of two silver reals, minted in Mexico, the son and mother were "Carolus et Johana, reges Hispaniarum et Indiarum".

* in 1555 at the death of Joana, when Charles (already the sole King of Aragon) became also sole king of Castile, being elevated to full kingship in Castile after some four decades of "co-kingship". However, the old Hispania was not united, as Portugal was independent.

* in 1580, when, after the Portuguese dynastic crisis, at the moment of personal union between Portugal and all other Iberian monarchies, it is said the old Hispania, became a united realm. Charles's son Philip II of Spain who already was King of Castile and Aragon (directly from his father) also became King of Portugal, and no longer there was any other monarchy in the Iberian Peninsula. Later, in 1640, Portugal rebelled and separated from this union under the House of Braganza (recognized by Spain only in 1668), and thenceforth the name of Spain does not refer to the whole of the Iberian peninsula (ancient Hispania), but only to this one of its two constituent countries.

The Spanish monarchs traditionally sign Yo El Rey (I the King), or Yo El Reyna (I the Queen).

these are the house of hasberg kings from austria
Charles I January 23, 1516 January 16, 1556
Philip II January 16, 1556 September 13, 1598
Philip III September 13, 1598 March 31, 1621
Philip IV March 31, 1621 September 17, 1665
Charles II September 17, 1665 November 1, 1700

2007-03-06 23:45:26 · answer #2 · answered by Adorabilly 5 · 0 0

Great answer from Adorabilly.

Two points only
The Spanish monarchs traditionally sign Yo El Rey (I the King), or Yo LA REINA (I the Queen).

AND

it is the Habsburg Family

2007-03-08 09:48:24 · answer #3 · answered by Martha P 7 · 1 0

This link will solve your question:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kings_of_Spain_family_tree

It seems there are a LOT of them in the time period you mentioned.

2007-03-06 23:43:52 · answer #4 · answered by inesp01 5 · 0 0

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