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If theta-hat is sufficient for theta, show that any one to one function of theta-hat is also sufficient for theta

2007-03-06 17:54:52 · 1 answers · asked by bill gerblonsky 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

1 answers

If theta-hat is sufficient, then E(theta-hat) = theta. So then f(theta-hat), being one-to-one, assigns each value of theta-hat to a specific value of theta. Thus, for each theta-hat, there exists a theta such that theta-hat is a sufficient estimator for theta.

2007-03-10 13:30:42 · answer #1 · answered by JasonM 7 · 3 0

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