English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

Did the use of serfs in western europe mean there werent any slaves during that time period?

2007-03-06 12:37:53 · 4 answers · asked by Judi R 1 in Arts & Humanities History

4 answers

There have always been slaves. Usually collected during wars. Serfs were usually indigenous population.

2007-03-06 12:43:56 · answer #1 · answered by cbklover 3 · 1 0

Not in Europe, so much, no. I'm sure somewhere in western Europe some lord picked up some slave or two on a Crusade, but for the most part, there weren't slaves.

2007-03-06 12:46:22 · answer #2 · answered by Monc 6 · 0 1

Yes, there were slaves in the middle ages. The link below has several examples.

2007-03-06 13:06:30 · answer #3 · answered by Peaches 5 · 0 0

Oh, No.... there were definetely slaves.

2007-03-06 12:45:00 · answer #4 · answered by USMC Recon 2 · 1 0

fedest.com, questions and answers