2007-03-06 10:08:57 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
It did.
Something quite like the French Revolution happened in England in 1649, when king Charles I had his head chopped off, and was succeeded by a military dictator (Cromwell) who was remarkably like Napoleon.
And rights similar to those that the French Revolution secured for the people of France were also secured in England 100 years or so beforehand, via the Glorious Revolution of 1688. But that was achieved without any substantial bloodshed, so it made less noise than the French affair.
2007-03-06 10:31:38 · answer #1 · answered by Gromm's Ghost 6 · 4⤊ 1⤋
Please don't forget MAgna Carta which was the first fomulization of rights and King John was forced to sign it in 1215.
England can be considered the well spring of individual rights that evolved into the Constitution of the United States and provided the incentive for the French Revolution.
2007-03-06 18:56:14 · answer #2 · answered by Randy 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
no one in England ever said "let them eat cake", for one. all revolutions are for different reasons, with different causes, etc, for two.
2007-03-06 18:22:54 · answer #3 · answered by Mr Smart 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The English actually had respect for their subjects. They also had a good monarchy, who wouldnt rather worry about gambiling than their land. The english seemed to have better leaders as well.
2007-03-06 18:42:25 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
ummmmm, ever hear of the United States??
2007-03-06 18:16:03 · answer #5 · answered by music junkie 4 · 0⤊ 3⤋