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folks,
in lorentz force we have f=b(q*V) which reduces to bqvsinTheta.
sin is understandable because this is a cross product.
but in deriving tangent law in magnetism we get cos Theta while using cross product? how

2007-03-06 01:42:35 · 1 answers · asked by aparna 1 in Science & Mathematics Physics

sir
in lorentz force we have f=Q(v*b) and the result is f= bqv sin Theta. since this is a cross product sin Theta is understandable.
but in magnetism while deriving tangent law we get both sin Theta and Cos Theta while using cross product. please explain

2007-03-06 02:18:55 · update #1

1 answers

I think the Lorentz Force Law is F = Q(v x B) that is v cross B

Total force is Q[E + (v x B)]

2007-03-06 01:51:23 · answer #1 · answered by weirdboy93720 2 · 0 0

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