folks,
in lorentz force we have f=b(q*V) which reduces to bqvsinTheta.
sin is understandable because this is a cross product.
but in deriving tangent law in magnetism we get cos Theta while using cross product? how
2007-03-06
01:42:35
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1 answers
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asked by
aparna
1
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Physics
sir
in lorentz force we have f=Q(v*b) and the result is f= bqv sin Theta. since this is a cross product sin Theta is understandable.
but in magnetism while deriving tangent law we get both sin Theta and Cos Theta while using cross product. please explain
2007-03-06
02:18:55 ·
update #1