English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

2 answers

You are presuming that there will be no bidders at the sale. The party forcing the sale can make a "credit bid", meaning they can bid the debt instead of bidding cash. If there are no other bidders, the property would revert to the lender or the judgment creditor.

2007-03-05 16:04:51 · answer #1 · answered by Carl 7 · 0 0

It will go back to the lender and they will try to sell it privately. If it sells for less than is owed. They will look to the former owner to pay the difference

2007-03-05 14:50:10 · answer #2 · answered by ggirl 3 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers