did the federal govt. from about 1865 to 1900 violate the principles of laissez faire when it came to land gra

Question

we had a discussion in class today about this and i do not really understand it. does anyone have any opinions or know of any good sources to get more info?

Answer 1

In the principle of laissez faire the government is not supposed to intervene in private economic affairs. But in granting land not just to individuals but massive chunks of it to giant corporations (in particular the railroads) the government decisively intervened.