When you explain suicide without any reference to sociological factors you have a non-sociological explanation. This kind of explanation has mainly to do with psychological or psychopathological explanations. They tend to consider humans more or less as independent units. Even when they don't exclude the influence of environmental factors, they focus on the person first. When a psychoanalyst explains suicide as a way of expressing hostility towards others in an unconscious way he or she builds the analysis around the processes inside the person (although the others are not completely absent). When the explanation is more sociological the influence of the social environments tends to be emphasized. Emile Durkheim was the first great sociologist that showed that suicide is a phenomenon with many social facets. I am a psychologist and in two or three months I will be a sociologist too. Hope I helped you
2007-03-05 10:30:21
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answer #1
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answered by Donegal 2
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Go back and read the preface to "Suicide", where Durkheim outlines sociology and its place in the social sciences. You will see that he was trying to distinguish the new field of sociology from social scientific arguments that tend to "psychologize" (emphasize individual, psychological differences). The most clear quote from the preface to Suicide is, again, where Durkheim explains that "Sociological method as we practice it rests wholly on the basic principle that social facts must be studied as things, that is, as realities external to the individual." It is the last part of this sentence that is perhaps most important -- he wants to discount individual explanations for things that occur as broad social phenomena.
So, distinguishing sociological from non-sociological explanations -- from a Durkheimian perspective, at least -- can be a matter of identifying at what level the explanation has value. If it is an individual-level explanation, such as mental illness, then it might not be sociological (unless the argument goes further that rates of mental illness are also a social fact). If it is a societal-level explanation, such as an overly repressive social system, that we would describe that as sociological.
This is a bit of an oversimplification, but it should give you an idea of where to go with this question. Good luck!
2007-03-05 18:22:06
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answer #2
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answered by coreyander 3
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Non-sociological explanations may be correct. Sociological explanations are likely incoherent and verbose.
2007-03-05 20:50:31
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Sociological = taking "data'' from the social aspects and ideals of why humans murder themselves.
Nonsociological = using biological and psychological evidence and theory to explain the same thing. The girl talking about derkhiem gives further depth of this.
2007-03-06 00:38:31
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answer #4
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answered by Camon R 1
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perhaps non-sociological explanations involve biology...like hormonal imbalance that lead to thoughts of suicide....whereas sociological explanations involve external influences such as job, family, etc.
2007-03-05 17:49:18
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answer #5
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answered by Sara * 3
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One is sociological and the other isn't. I forget which.
2007-03-06 00:10:49
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answer #6
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answered by yahoohoo 6
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