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If a term is defined "Party" and is later referenced as "Parties" what factors would go to interpreting it as "all Parties" or "one or more Parties"?

2007-03-05 06:43:29 · 2 answers · asked by J C 1 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

Please assume there's no paragraph on plurals.

2007-03-05 08:23:40 · update #1

2 answers

A court will look to the context in which it is used. In those very rare cases where the difference in number is crucial and context does not resolve an ambiguity, the court can accept parol (ie., outside the face of the agreement) evidence of the intent of the parties.

2007-03-05 07:16:31 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

In most Contracts, there is usually a paragraph that provides for plurals and gender which nobody ever reads.

2007-03-05 08:05:44 · answer #2 · answered by brokenheartsyndrome 4 · 0 0

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