2007-03-05 00:07:28 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
WHAT?? HUH?? Trying to interpret your cryptic question!!
Why would a company have redundant workers? And why would the government be paying them?
If you are making a political statement here you need to be more succinct!
2007-03-05 00:11:18 · answer #1 · answered by SantaBud 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The company must pay the notice pay and redundancy pay.
However if the company is unable to pay (becomes insolvent) the government redundancy payments office will make the payments and attempt to claim it back off any assets of the collapsed company.
2007-03-05 00:18:54 · answer #2 · answered by mainwoolly 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The company pays the statutory redundancy pay (1 weeks pay for every year worked I think), plus any extra it feels it would like to pay.
After their contracts are terminated the ex-employees can claim benefits such as job seekers allowance, and this is paid by the government
2007-03-05 00:14:50 · answer #3 · answered by whycantigetagoodnickname 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If they have been at the same company for more than 2 years, the company should offer them a redundancy package which is taxed. They then sign on the dole as unemployed and if they have savings (i.e. a massive redundancy payout) then their dole payouts are reduced or they don't get any until they are skint. Then they get income support and don't appear on the unemployment statistics. As Income support is to supplement a low income. So the governments unemployment figures of say 1.5 million are actually closer to 5 million.
2007-03-05 00:14:47 · answer #4 · answered by Lord of the Sovereign Ring 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
A company can ONLY make a job redundant NOT a worker!
They can terminate a contract if there is insufficient work, and NO payment will be due, except for any back pay, or holidays owed!
2007-03-05 00:14:15 · answer #5 · answered by tattie_herbert 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The company is liable to make any redundancy payments.
2007-03-05 00:15:32 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋