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2 answers

p is just a parameter and the 2 f 's need not be the same.
Actuall laplace transform of f(t) = integ ( exp(-pt) f(t)dt) from t = 0 to t = inf. Since it is a definite integral of ' t' the laplace transform will only be a function of ' p' the parameter.

2007-03-05 00:15:59 · answer #1 · answered by Keeper of Barad'dur 2 · 0 0

p is just a change of variable from t

2007-03-09 03:18:42 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

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