hi i have a column on chart titles logprice. the figures within the column are the natural log of the price of bordeaux wines relative to the price of the 1961 vintage. why does the variable logprice have the value of zero in 1961?? can anyone help. cheers
2007-03-04 02:57:39 · 5 answers · asked by @@@Marty@@@ 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
The answers simple. the log of 1 is zero. u mentioned that the column values are natural log of prices with respect to 1961 vintage. Thus prices of 1961 relative to itself is 1!
2007-03-04 03:02:45 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
1) The data you're getting is the ratio of the current price devided by the 1961 price.
2) For 1961, the ratio is one; and ln(1) = 0
2007-03-04 11:13:16 · answer #2 · answered by 1988_Escort 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Since it is a relative pricing, the initial value would be 1.
The log of 1 (to any real base) is 0
2007-03-04 11:03:00 · answer #3 · answered by cattbarf 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Exactly as they say above ...
Any number x to the power of 0 = 1 (viz. x/x)
So, to any base of log, ln(1) = log(1) = 0.
2007-03-04 11:14:27 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
natural=grape pressed.
zero=bottled.
There is always a variance.
2007-03-05 23:48:13 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋