2007-03-04 02:19:46 · 4 answers · asked by ☼Divine Wind☼ 3 in Politics & Government ➔ Elections
Yes, then they start changing the laws like Chavez does in Venezuela. They do it in the name of the people and one day the people wake up and no longer are free
2007-03-04 02:24:57 · answer #1 · answered by Chainsaw 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
I'm certainly not an expert on communist nations' laws, but I think how it usually works is that ballots only contain the name of one candidate for a position, and the voter votes either yes or no for the candidate. Also, only Communist Party members are allowed to vote.
Fidel Castro took power in Cuba and disarmed the revolutionaries who had fought against the Batista regime but who were not under his direct control, such as the Frente Nacional del Escambray, and then never held the elections they thought were going to get to participate in. I don't think to this day the Cuban people have voted for Castro. Castro's line has been that since the party represents the people, elections are not necessary.
2007-03-04 11:10:36 · answer #2 · answered by kscottmccormick 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Sarcastically, Sure. Smile.
People in Communistic countries are told who to vote for. This is assured by military control. Yep. In other words. No, the only process where free elections are held are free nations. I hesitate to say democratic nations. again, I smile.
Hisemiester
2007-03-04 10:27:30 · answer #3 · answered by hisemiester 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Yes. It is simply a smaller branch of the socialist ideology of classless, stateless, mutual ownership of the means of production. It has nothing against democracy per-se....So yes, a communist can get voted into office.
2007-03-04 10:24:01 · answer #4 · answered by mamasquirrel 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋