Bases loaded, next hitter-runner lays down a bunt. He reaches first base and the third base runner crosses home plate before ball reaches home plate. Is this a fielders choice or a base hit?
This was not a squeeze play. The pitcher throw the ball when the runner was one step before crossing home plate.
2007-03-04 01:37:33 · 14 answers · asked by Chase H 1 in Sports ➔ Baseball
You have to read the question carefully before answering. The asker says the batter-runner reaches first and the runner from third reaches home "before the ball REACHES HOME PLATE."
The answer to the question depends on the scorer's opinion, which he will base on actually seeing the play. And that's why nobody here is qualified to give a definitive answer.
Rule 10.06(d) in the Official Baseball Rules states that no base hit shall be credited if the defense fails to put out a preceding runner if the scorer believes the defense could have retired the batter-runner.
Rule 10.05(b) states that a base hit shall be credited if the batter reaches base on a ball hit "with such force, or so slowly, that any fielder attempting to make a play with it has no opportunity to do so."
Mere indecision on the fielder's part would not result in a hit for the batter-runner. Nor would it result in an error. This is different from when two fielders can't decide who will catch a fly ball and the ball drops in for a hit.
2007-03-04 06:42:16 · answer #1 · answered by Ryan R 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I must be getting senile , you have me confused.
The way you have described it it seems like the pitcher pitched the ball when the runner was a step from home plate and then the batter bunted the pitched ball. If that's the case it's a stolen base.
If the pitcher fielded the bunt and then went home with it having his fielded ball cross home plate one step a head of the runner it's a base hit and assuming that the catcher fielded the ball cleanly and stepped on the plate , the runner is out. -force situation
2007-03-04 02:39:11 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Its a fielder's choice because the fielder made the choice to throw the ball home instead of trying to get the hitter out.
2007-03-04 02:15:05 · answer #3 · answered by rich 4 · 0⤊ 2⤋
It is a base hit. As long as the natural course of the play isnt effected then it is a base hit and RBI. They couldnt attach an error to anyone since nobody did anything that had a negative effect on the play....base hit!
2007-03-04 01:42:42 · answer #4 · answered by viphockey4 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
This would have to be a base hit. No runners were out on the play. All runners were safe and no errors were committed.
2007-03-04 03:50:53 · answer #5 · answered by nickforstmann 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
If all runners where safe then it was a basehit. If the runner at home was called out then it would be a fielders choice.
2007-03-04 04:41:17 · answer #6 · answered by russell s 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
base hit; someone besides the hitter has to get out for a fielder's choice.
2007-03-04 04:23:36 · answer #7 · answered by CJ 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Fielder's choice.
2007-03-04 02:29:33 · answer #8 · answered by William M 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
base hit. any fielder would want to stop someone going home
2007-03-04 02:14:12 · answer #9 · answered by yankees_08wschamps 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Base hit.
2007-03-04 01:42:05 · answer #10 · answered by Skyhawk 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋