Dividing (x + 5)/(x^2 - x -30) by (x + 6)/(x^2 -36) results in 1
2007-03-04 01:05:54 · 4 answers · asked by paulyag4bm 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
True. x²-x-30 factors as (x+5)(x-6), so (x+5)/(x²-x-30) = 1/(x-6). Also, x²-36 factors as (x+6)(x-6), so (x+6)/(x²-36) = 1/(x-6). And clearly, dividing 1/(x-6) by 1/(x-6) will result in 1.
2007-03-04 01:13:53 · answer #1 · answered by Pascal 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Firstly, (x^2 - x - 30) is a quadratic which can be factorised to (x-6) and (x+5).
(x^2-36) can also be factorised - (x-6)(x+6)
Therefore the question can also be written as:
[(x+5)/(x+5)(x-6)] divided by [(x+6)/(x+6)(x-6)]
By cancelling out in both fractions we're left with:
[1/(x-6)] divided by [1/(x-6)]
Any number divided by itself is 1.
:)
2007-03-04 01:23:47 · answer #2 · answered by ***Toria*** 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
50% chance it's true.
2007-03-04 01:13:50 · answer #3 · answered by breezy 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
true
2007-03-04 01:20:40 · answer #4 · answered by abd 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋