Involuntary Manslaughter is considered less of a crime than actual murder because it does not involve deliberate planning to commit the act.
However, a man attacking a woman sexually is either rape, or sexual assault, depending on the circumstances. You can't compare rape to Manslaughter, as if someone is telling you no, you are deliberately ignoring them by going through with the act. You've made the deliberate decision to continue the act.
Therefore, rape is a deliberate act, not an involuntary one.
Moreover, I would like to point this out: Rape is not a reaction to "seduction." Rape is a reaction to one's misogyny.
EDIT:
If someone raped your wife, and you killed them in a fit of rage, that is manslaughter. However, if you stalked their movements, figured out when the most opportune time to kill him would be, that is murder, because you premeditated the act.
If a woman grabs your junk, and waves her panties in front of you, then when you're getting ready to "do the deed" with her, and she changes her mind, you are still acting with malicious intent when you disregard her "no." Therefore, you are willfully violating her. As I said before, comparing involuntary manslaughter to rape is impossible, as nothing ever justifies going past the point of "no." Nothing, EVER.
2007-03-03 19:42:23
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answer #1
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answered by Rocky 2
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Murder is deliberate and intentional. Usually, it requires planning, organization, and, perhaps, a lack of morality and/or an inability to rationalize. Therefore, murderers present a significant threat to society, because they've proven that they can and will carry out threats against another person's life. By contrast, involuntary manslaughter is accidental with no hostility or intent behind the crime. People held responsible for it usually aren't considered a danger to society, as involuntary manslaughter doesn't suggest an inability to reason or that the guilty party is, in any way, morally-deficient.
Rape is not considered involuntary because it isn't -- it's a choice and the victim can't be held responsible if her attacker makes the wrong one. Furthermore, rape doesn't simply occur in your narrowly-defined parameters -- young children are raped, women wearing head-to-toe coverings, i.e. burqas, are raped, etc. -- and often their attackers rape them because they need to feel in-control or they have some other psychological problem.
'Seduction' really doesn't have very much to do with it. Even if it did, that's schoolyard logic -- it's equivalent to a young child saying that hitting Billy was justified because Billy said he was ugly -- and it's something that our society won't allow, because we hold each individual responsible for his own actions. Men possess sufficient faculties of logic, reasoning, and understanding to interpret a situation and make the correct decision; if a woman says she doesn't want to have sex, then it's her partner's responsibility to respect that and accept it.
Rape is never justified and, if you think that it could be, then I seriously recommend that you seek professional help.
*In response to the details you added; if you murdered a man who had raped your wife, then you would still be charged with murder, because you'd taken the law into your own hands. Your sentence might not, however, be as severe, because there were extenuating circumstances.
Also, if a woman touched you sexually, without your consent, then /she/ could be fined with sexual assault (or similar), but that still doesn't justify rape for all the reasons described above.
2007-03-03 20:47:43
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answer #2
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answered by ? 2
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Involuntary manslaughter is just that....an accident or unintentional act that results in the death or another person. Murder is premeditated, planned, intentional, with malice aforethought.
As for rape due to a woman's seduction, the one thing to keep in mind is that NO means NO. If a woman changes her mind any normal, sane, reasonable male will heed that comment and respect her decision.
2007-03-03 19:40:54
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answer #3
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answered by Kay P 3
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So, what . . . a guy can rape a woman "involuntarily" now? How exactly does that work? Your question doesn't even make sense. Do they judge involuntary manslaughter by weather the victim was really asking for it or not? I can't accept the fact I'm even dignifying your question with a response.
2007-03-03 19:48:12
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answer #4
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answered by Kat 3
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Murder is deliberate, while involuntary manslaughter by definition, is not considered deliberate.
The comparison you are trying to draw here is not really relative. If a woman says NO at any stage before actually having relations it is her right, & NO still means NO!!
Just because I leave my car unlocked w the keys in it, & tell everyone that fact, doesn't make theft LEGAL. (altho perhaps deserved!)
2007-03-03 19:37:01
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answer #5
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answered by SantaBud 6
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You lack understanding of the term "involuntary manslaughter" and sexual assault is never involuntary. If you got assaulted sexually by a man because you "seduced" him on should he be given a get out of jail card?
2007-03-03 19:40:33
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answer #6
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answered by King Rao 4
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I easily might want to admit that it really is the most convoluted, left wing straw guy challenge that i have ever considered on Y/A and that i have considered a great number of them. no longer merely that, yet you do not have any comprehension of organic regulation and criminal regulation. extra, in case you're in college or finished college, you scare the hell out of me for my grand youngster's academic opportunities.
2016-11-27 20:21:10
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answer #7
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answered by ? 4
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Under the law, I.M. lacks intent to murder. Have a good day!
2007-03-03 19:39:23
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answer #8
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answered by wheeliebin 6
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Involuntary means you didn't mean to or accidental.
the rest of your question is too stupid to justify with and answer.
2007-03-03 19:40:10
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answer #9
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answered by babydragonspawn 3
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A mans resolve to refrain from the unthinkable is what separates us from primates!
2007-03-03 19:43:51
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answer #10
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answered by Eat My Shorts 3
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