It "should" mean the same to both parties, but given the rate of divorce...
2007-03-03 15:36:45
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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There is nothing to agree or disagree with and each relationship is different, I think. Some men are more into it than women and vice versa.
2007-03-03 23:28:39
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answer #2
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answered by ♥ღ.:FarAwaY:.ღ♥ 4
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Yes, because they know beforehand that when they get divorced... cha-ching! She gets to take half of everything the man has. That's why they are always so opposed to pre-nups.
2007-03-04 05:35:44
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answer #3
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answered by Jay (cynical) 7
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it seems like it when u look at statisitics but then again when u watch court tv it doesnt seem like it means much 2 anyone any more
2007-03-03 23:27:31
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answer #4
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answered by ? 5
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yes
2007-03-03 23:25:55
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answer #5
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answered by Buzzig 2
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my wife seems to think so
2007-03-03 23:24:28
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answer #6
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answered by Comfortably Numb™ 7
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i think it would all depend on the couple.
2007-03-03 23:24:06
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Not necessarily......
2007-03-03 23:39:07
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answer #8
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answered by Anashuya 6
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