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Assuming you agree, why is that?

2007-03-03 15:21:09 · 8 answers · asked by Fox Paws 6 in Entertainment & Music Polls & Surveys

8 answers

It "should" mean the same to both parties, but given the rate of divorce...

2007-03-03 15:36:45 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

There is nothing to agree or disagree with and each relationship is different, I think. Some men are more into it than women and vice versa.

2007-03-03 23:28:39 · answer #2 · answered by ♥ღ.:FarAwaY:.ღ♥ 4 · 0 0

Yes, because they know beforehand that when they get divorced... cha-ching! She gets to take half of everything the man has. That's why they are always so opposed to pre-nups.

2007-03-04 05:35:44 · answer #3 · answered by Jay (cynical) 7 · 0 0

it seems like it when u look at statisitics but then again when u watch court tv it doesnt seem like it means much 2 anyone any more

2007-03-03 23:27:31 · answer #4 · answered by ? 5 · 0 0

yes

2007-03-03 23:25:55 · answer #5 · answered by Buzzig 2 · 0 0

my wife seems to think so

2007-03-03 23:24:28 · answer #6 · answered by Comfortably Numb™ 7 · 0 0

i think it would all depend on the couple.

2007-03-03 23:24:06 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Not necessarily......

2007-03-03 23:39:07 · answer #8 · answered by Anashuya 6 · 0 0

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