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The closest you can come to that is America's civil war. It is an amazing fact. What accounts for this?

2007-03-03 13:26:10 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Other - Society & Culture

2 answers

Perhaps it is because of the lack of democracies in the world throughout history. When the U.S. was founded (relatively recently) very few thought a democracy could actually work, and the only other democracy I can think of that had existed before then was in Greece.

2007-03-03 13:36:56 · answer #1 · answered by Ashley 4 · 0 0

The question has benefit: so a techniques no solutions are even on the brink of refuting this assertion. to call "Yugoslavia's ethnic battles have been democracy vs. democracy" insults the reminiscence of such genocide and to have faith that Serbia replaced right into a democracy defies good judgment. Democracy as we now define it calls for standard suffrage: each and every person could desire to have a vote. we've had wars like uk as against Argentina, Greece as against Turkey and such, however the belief is robust. hassle is there are few real democracies different than Western Europe and different commercial powers, calling Pakistain v. India a conflict of such is defective as Pakistan replaced into/is a susceptible occasion. that's a philosophical question; yet fairly never challenged. England v. u.s. circa 1812 is a humorous tale: as though the persons in Wales and Scotland had a vote?

2016-10-02 08:25:57 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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