hi,
okay i was trying to figure out why is it that the less fat in milk, the more lactose. i was looking at diffent sites, and saw that skim milk has like a gram more than 1% and 1% has a gram or so more than 2% and so on. i was trying to find how many molecule of lactose each type had but i couldnt find it. soo does anyone know why there's more lactose in milk with less fat??
2007-03-03 11:43:28 · 3 answers · asked by qwerty_123 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Chemistry
Whole milk is 4% butter fat.
If you take that 4% away, the replacement in the bottle or cup is skimmed milk so there is just that much more lactose.
If you have heavy cream,40% butter fat, then 40% is not milk , take it away and that 40% is milk with lactose
2007-03-03 11:49:25 · answer #1 · answered by science teacher 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I'm thinking the space left by the absence of fat is filled by more sugar (lactose)and protein etc. so it makes sense.
2007-03-03 19:52:59 · answer #2 · answered by Jeffrey P 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
lactose is soluble in water not fat. so the more watery the milk is, the more lactose can dissolve.
2007-03-03 19:48:27 · answer #3 · answered by applejacks 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋