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Freud had a definition for it, but i think people use it without knowing his theory.
And btw, Freud is dead and we have other theories supported by statistic studies.

2007-03-03 10:32:23 · 2 answers · asked by manu 2 in Social Science Psychology

2 answers

it's used interchangeably for 'unconscious mind'. usually it is used by pop culture and people who do not know much about psychology

statistical studies can't prove the existence of a certain unconscious mind model, because no one knows how their unconscious mind truly works, psychologists simply speculate on what seems correct.

p.s. most of freuds ideas have been debunked

2007-03-03 10:41:49 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The existence of the subconscious mind can hardly be denied. I still think Freud was right whe he said the human mind was like an iceberg: Most of it is under water.
Karl Jung gave another example: If I say, what's 2+2?, you instantly know the answer is 4. But a second ago, you weren't aware of that fact. So obvisously, part of your mind exists independantly of your awareness of it.
But what its content means in its raw form is anyone's guess.
Very few people still follow classical Freudian psychoanalysis, or even similar models, in which one would attempt to tabulate the contents of the mind in a model for the consciousness to appreciate. But few modern therapists deny its existence altogether, or dismiss its power over individuals' lives.
Of course, like everything else, it has fallen prey to pop culture, and all sorts of simplistic ideas about the unconscious are vehiculated. But that's just par for the course in our society. Juste browse any category here on Yahoo answer. If only experts were allowed to answer questions, this wouldn't be much of a site.

2007-03-03 11:00:28 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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