For example, Diana, Princess of Wales. Why do they call all the prince and princesses of the UK that? Is that royal family decendents of Wales?
2007-03-03 08:12:39 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Royalty
The Prince of Wales is the heir to the English throne. His younger brother (if he has one) is the Duke of York.
The way the English kings used to try to usurp regional royalty in Scotland and Wales was to install "pretenders" to the regional thrones. In the case of Scotland, they resorted to buying off the local aristocracy, exchanging allegiance to the English King for land and title in England. In the case of Wales, their royals were princes. The King (starting I believe with Edward I), not only fought off rebellion with sheer force, but also, by introducing his son and heir as the Prince of Wales, tricked many of the Welsh into believing that he was legitimately the Prince of Wales through bloodlines.
The title continues to this day.
2007-03-03 08:27:59 · answer #1 · answered by lesroys 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Only the heir to the English throne is called Prince of Wales, which goes back to the time that the Welsh were conquered by the English. His wife, naturally is Princess of Wales. Their children are Prince William of Wales and Prince Henry of Wales.
The family name is Windsor, and future descendents will be known as Mountbatten-Windsor.
2007-03-03 09:00:27 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
The title Prince of Wales was established by Edward I long before Henry VIII came along. Henry VIII was a Tudor, the son of Henry Tudor who killed the last of the Plantagenet monarchs, Richard III in 1485 at the Battle of Bosworth and usurped the throne as Henry VII.
Wales is a separate country within Great Britain but is administratively and politically tied to England. Scotland is also tied to England but less closely.
2007-03-03 16:18:02 · answer #3 · answered by tentofield 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It goes back to Edward I, who invaded Wales, murdering Llewellyn, the last Prince of Wales in the process.
In one of his victory speeches, folklore says that Edward I promised the Welsh a new Prince, and one could not speak a word of English. Edward then held up his baby son, pronouncing him to be the Prince of Wales.
Ever since, then if the heir to the throne is male, then he is given the title "Prince of Wales". The "Investiture" ceremonies are a relatively recent innovation.
Intrestingly, the title "Prince of Wales" has no relevance in Scotland. In Scotland, the male geir to the throne bears the titles "Duke of Rothesay" and "Earl of Carrick".
2007-03-03 10:47:00 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
It's because when Henry VIII became King he united England and Wales. He being Welsh, he was already the King of Wales. Therefore any eldest male first in the line of succession was henceforth titled "The Prince of Wales", almost as a sign that that was the second-highest rank in English royalty as none but a Welshman at that time could be the Prince of Wales. Then the procedure became institutionalized.
2007-03-03 08:31:03 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 3⤋
The Spencers are aristocratic landowners, not peasants. They very own the land, value others lease to stay there and take an element of the salary (or did interior the previous days, going back to the feudal era, they could have been given titles by potential of the royal kin as fee for provider). Diana married from an aristocratic kin into the ruling aristocratic kin
2016-10-17 04:51:50 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
They don't call all the princes that at all. That title is reserved for the heir to the throne, his wife and AFAIK his issues.
2007-03-03 18:51:44 · answer #7 · answered by Mike J 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i think they are all from the county of England that is called wales.
2007-03-03 10:41:38 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋