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system about an axis passing through o prpedicular to the plane of frame is?

2007-03-03 00:16:35 · 1 answers · asked by chotu 1 in Science & Mathematics Physics

1 answers

I'm assuming the axis of rotation is through the midpoint (at the vertex of the V). In this case, moment of inertia is the same as if the rod weren't bent.

The reason there's no difference is because all the parts of the rod are still the same distance from the axis of rotation. In other words, the end of the rod is still just as far from the axis of rotation after bending as before.

For a rod rotated about its midpoint, I = 1/12 ML^2, so that's your answer.

2007-03-03 00:57:05 · answer #1 · answered by Thomas G 3 · 1 0

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