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2007-03-02 23:40:55 · 14 answers · asked by Pranil 7 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

14 answers

x = y
x^2 = xy
x^2 - y^2 = xy - y^2
(x + y) (x - y) = y(x - y)
x + y = y
since x = y
2x = x
2 = 1
2 + 2 = 1 + 2
4 = 3

2007-03-02 23:50:33 · answer #1 · answered by John S 6 · 1 0

4 = 3

4 - 3 = 0 eqn.(1)

3 - 4 = 0 eqn.(2)

4 / 3 = 1 eqn.(3)

3 / 4 = 1 eqn.(4)

(1) + (2) => (4 + 3) + (- 3 + - 4) = 0 + 0

7 + (- 7) = 0

7 - 7 = 0

0 = 0 eqn.(5)

(3) + (4) => 4 / 3 + 3 / 4 = 1 + 1

[(4 x 4) / (3 x 4)] + [(3 x 3) / (4 x 3)] = 2

16 / 12 + 9 / 12 = 2

(16 + 9) / 12 = 2

25 / 12 = 2

(25 / 12) - 2 = 0

(25 - 24) / 12 = 0

1 / 12 = 0 eqn.(6)

(5) = (6) => 0 = 1 / 12 = 0

(1) + (2) => (5)

(3) + (4) => (6)

=> (1) + (2) = (3) + (4)

(4 - 3 = 0) + (3 - 4 = 0) = (4 / 3 = 1) + (3 / 4 =1)

(4 = 3) + (3 = 4) = (4 = 3) + ( 3 = 4)

Now adding,

(4 + 3 = 3 + 4) = (4 + 3 = 3 + 4)

7 = 7 = 7 = 7

Q.E.D.

Try the same way for your own innovative 5 = 6 and other such daredevils! Wish you all the best!

2007-03-03 09:12:07 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

like that 4/5=3/6

2007-03-03 07:49:26 · answer #3 · answered by Raja 3 · 0 1

Quite simple. Consider the equivalence class of 4 modulo 1. It is {-1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, ...} Since 4 and 3 are in the same equivalence set, 4 = 3 (mod 1), and since 5 and 6 share an equivalence set, 5 = 6 (mod 1).

Note: This one actually works and doesn't involve dividing by zero or any of those other tricks ^^

2007-03-03 10:28:47 · answer #4 · answered by person m 1 · 0 1

You have ten fingers.
Count the fingers on one hand: 1 2 3 4 5
Count the fingers on the other hand now like this: 10 9 8 7 6
Since both hands have equal fingers, 5=6
Hence Proved

2007-03-03 07:49:08 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

You have 4 adults standing on a street corner (at church, not school) - one gets shot now 4 = 3

You have 5 adults swimming in a pool - 2 get freaky - 1 has a kid, now 5 = 6

2007-03-03 08:28:26 · answer #6 · answered by jennainhiding 4 · 1 0

4 x 0 = 3X 0 = 5 X 0 = 6 X 0 = 0
Now divide both sides by zero, but did you know that 0 / 0 is NOT equal to 1, but is, in fact, an indeterminate quantity (which is a mathematical singularity)!

So, in reality, scientifically speaking, we can't show what is proposed here, jokes apart...In the world of jokes many things are possible, but in the world of the "exact sciences," some of these "apparent truths," can be shown to be "mathematical absurdities."

NOTHING PERSONAL PLEASE!

2007-03-03 08:05:24 · answer #7 · answered by Sam 7 · 0 1

Let x = y
so (x - y) = 0
4(x - y) = 3(x - y) = 0
divide by (x - y)
4 = 3

same with 5(x - y) and 6(x - y)

2007-03-03 08:16:42 · answer #8 · answered by wizebloke 7 · 0 0

all of you except the one who wishes u a noble prize r greatly mistaken and lack proper concepts.
u all show that in India standard of maths and/or education is low and is "clerical" and non conceptual.
u dont know (x-y) cant be taken common or cancelled if it is equal to zero.
one can show the above relation but satisfy only ignorant persons or fools.

2007-03-04 23:39:53 · answer #9 · answered by avi 2 · 0 1

all of u will b given a nobel prize 4 this!

2007-03-03 08:09:31 · answer #10 · answered by hellboy 2 · 0 0

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