The period I'm interested in is the beginning of the 19th century. I know that titles and entailed property were usually passed on, after the peer's death, to his eldest legitimate son (if he had one), but what if the father would have become very angry with his son? Is there any valid reason at all that the peer could have used to disinherit his son or, in any case, prevent him from inheriting the title?
2007-03-02
18:53:43
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1 answers
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asked by
Adnana
2
in
Arts & Humanities
➔ History