is the only reason that solipsism cant be disproved is because we cant directly experience what another person is experienceing? that the only reason right? cause we can never truly 100% know.
but other than that it is a pretty flawed and widely refuted theory right? so in other words its wrong but we can label it as wrong because we can only experience ourselves
2007-03-02 11:21:17 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
No it can't be disproved because It's correct. Just stop worrying about it. It's no big deal.
It cant be disproved is because we cant directly experience what another person is experiencing, because the other person is a figment of the common imagination just as you and I are.
Get used to it. Nothing has changed here, you just noticed the truth.
Love and blessings Don?
2007-03-03 02:31:47 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
I will take a stab at this for I am somewhat board.
For those who are not sure about what solipsism means, it is the theory that the self is the only thing that may be known or proved to be in existence.
I shall take my cue from Parmenides on this one and ask if the self, let us say me here for all intents and purposes henceforth, is the only thing that may be known to exist, then how did the self (I) come into existence? Either I have always existed, or I was caused by some other existent thing.
If I have always existed, then why do I have no recollection or experience of inifity? How can I fathom eternity? I appear to be finite in the sense that I cannot understand all that is, for if I were infinite I would have an infinite amount of time to understand.
If I have not always existed then there must have been something else that caused me. If something else has caused me then there is something else that has or does exist.
Once you have shown that there must be something else that exists, you should then be able to work out how experience and understanding cooperate. Phenomenology would be a good philosophy to bring to this question. In the act of knowing there are two sides: the knowing subject and the known object. The known object may simply be an idea or imagination, but when you connect this with what was said earlier about the neccesity of an other existing you should be able to draw more conclusive answers than I have time here.
2007-03-06 10:15:21 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If a man strikes you in the face is that not an experience? If you have faith in some other higher power other than yours is that not an experience? That was the whole idea at creation. We are not ants or bees. We are individual humans with a perception of individualism and FREE WILL. The ability to make free choices.
(Proverbs 20:27) (Whole Chapter)
The spirit of man [that factor in human personality which proceeds immediately from God] is the lamp of the Lord, searching all his innermost parts. [I Cor 2:11 ]
(1 Corinthians 2:11) (Whole Chapter)
For what person perceives (knows and understands) what passes through a man's thoughts except the man's own spirit within him? Just so no one discerns (comes to know and comprehend) the thoughts of God except the Spirit of God.
(Ecclesiastes 12:7) (Whole Chapter)
Then shall the dust [out of which God made man's body] return to the earth as it was, and the spirit shall return to God Who gave it.
2007-03-02 11:48:53 · answer #3 · answered by Michael JENKINS 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
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2016-10-17 10:00:02 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
if i could truly know that no other mind existed than mine, then yes. but then again, if i was the only mind and everything else was a creation within that mind, then i would be The All. because according to hermetic philosophy, all is mind.
2007-03-02 11:56:50 · answer #5 · answered by ? 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋