All unaffordable combinations of goods are preferred to affordable combinations of goods?

Question

All unaffordable combinations of goods are preferred to affordable combinations of goods. Is this statement true or false? Explain.

I'm guessing this would deal with the indifference curve--a curve that shows the combinations of 2 goods equally preferred by the consumer. Wouldn't it be false then...wouldn't they be EQUALLY preferred, not unaffordable goods preferred to affordable goods...?

Answer 1

This statement is false. It would indeed depend upon which indifference curve the combination fell on. It is possible for a combination to be unaffordable, yet have less utility than some affordable ones. So, only those unaffordable combinations on a higher indifference curve would be preferred.

Answer 2

this would only be true base on the following assumptions,
1.they are normal goods,
2.non-satiation assumption(more is better)
3. two good-economy
it could be false without the assumptions above
indifference curves for bad goods and useless goods are diffenerent from regular-shaped indifference curves, which shows the more u consume of one thing doesn't mean the better off you are.

Answer 3

It's true. If you could afford it, you'd have it, but you can't, so you get what you can afford...