2007-03-01 23:11:42 · 5 answers · asked by S A M 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
This is a very cofusing notation. I have never seen a formula like it.
You could take it as (cosh^(-1)x)^2 which is the square of an inverse hyperbolic cosine, or as cosh^(-1)((cosh^(-1)x)) which is two successive inverses.
I think Physicist meant 1/(cosh x)^2. That's another interpretation.
2007-03-01 23:30:25 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Cos^-1(x) is a conventional notation which means an angle whose cosine is x.
If we want to take an inverse value squared of and angle whose cosine is x ,it would be noted as [Cos^-1(x)]^-2.
The same applies to hyperbolic function which would be noted as Cosh^-1(x)
Your notation in your question does not exist in mathemathics.
2007-03-02 07:54:29 · answer #2 · answered by goring 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The inverse of the square of the hyperbolic cosine of the variable x.
2007-03-02 07:15:23 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
The inverse of square of the hyperbolic co-sinus from x
2007-03-02 07:18:53 · answer #4 · answered by diamond 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It means 1/(cosx)^2
2007-03-02 07:23:20 · answer #5 · answered by physicist 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋