examine aristotles slavery and their validity?

Question

can we say that aristotle slavery can be followed in todays world aur is justified?

Answer 1

First, please let me re-check and read again about Aristotle.

"As a young man, we are told, he [Aristotle] squandered his patrimony in riotous living; he joined the army, and was thrown out of it; for a while he sold drugs and nostrums to make a living. Finally, at the age of thirty, he ended up in college -- in Plato's Academy."1 Aristotle was still plugging away at Plato's Academy some twenty years later, when, in 348 BC, Plato died. On Plato's death Aristotle set out and traveled for three years throughout Asia Minor. After that Aristotle was called to take up a most prestigious position at the Macedonian court. The king of Macedonia, Philip, appointed Aristotle to teach his young son, Alexander. At Alexander's death, 323 BC, Aristotle found himself connected to the wrong crowd; he fled Athens, and -- just in time -- for charges of "impiety" were brought against him; the same charges, which, 76 years earlier, had led to the death of Socrates. He did not live long in exile: he died within the year.

Ethically, Aristotle figured that "happiness is the goal of life. Pleasure, fame, and wealth, however, will not bring one the highest happiness"; it is achieved by a contemplative and monastic way of life. (Benet's.)

Aristotle had an extraordinary impact on both the people of his day and those who followed him down through the centuries; it is to be attributed to his logistical way of thinking, his rigorous scientific procedure. His premises, however, were not correct. If you are a believer in the proposition that all men are created equal, then Aristotle is not your man. Aristotle considered slavery to be entirely natural, -- simply because "some men are adapted by nature to be the physical instruments of others." Further, and more generally, Aristotle had "an intense conviction of the natural inferiority of the 'barbarian.'"

From Another source:
Aristole's theory of slavery is found in Book I, Chapters iii through vii of the Politics. and in Book VII of the Nicomachean Ethics

Aristotle raises the question of whether slavery is natural or conventional. He asserts that the former is the case. So, Aristotle's theory of slavery holds that some people are naturally slaves and others are naturally masters. Thus he says:

But is there any one thus intended by nature to be a slave, and for whom such a condition is expedient and right, or rather is not all slavery a violation of nature?

There is no difficulty in answering this question, on grounds both of reason and of fact. For that some should rule and others be ruled is a thing not only necessary, but expedient; from the hour of their birth, some are marked out for subjection, others for rule.
END OF QUOTE.

The conclusion is:
Poor Aristotle does not invent a new theory, he simply looks around in his own time and he tells what he sees there, that some people are doomed to be slaves even from the moment of their birth while others are born to be kings. He said, marked out, if it's an accurate translation. The antiques believed a lot in fate, that fates rules a person's life, therfor he seems to be more like
a politician here who declares the superiority of the Greeks, Attention, he disconsiders everyone else.

His idea is not justified anymore, since we discovered that having a simple life doesn't mean inferiour.