2007-03-01 03:01:38 · 8 answers · asked by Bruno C 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
does it say in the constitution that a prisoner doesnt have the right to use his hands for self defense ie right to bear arms or protect self??
2007-03-01 03:09:25 · update #1
It doesn't.
2007-03-01 03:05:11 · answer #1 · answered by tain 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Unless you are talking about arming the prisoners, I cannot think of a single argument of how the death penalty violates the second amendment. Arming prisoners is not a violation because people in prison have certain rights revoked or suspended.
2007-03-01 11:06:21 · answer #2 · answered by A.Mercer 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Strange question to say the least. But, for one to have been adjudicated with death...there is NO right to bear arms!
Any felony conviction prohibits future ownership or possession of a firearm by federal statutes!
2007-03-01 11:07:57 · answer #3 · answered by KC V ™ 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Convicted criminals waive many rights [against their will in most cases].
Apparently the 'inalienable' rights are indeed alienable. See...politicians have been saying one thing and meaning another for hundreds of years now.
2007-03-02 01:05:22 · answer #4 · answered by fuzzinutzz 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not at all. As a matter of fact, just before you are killed by lethal injection, they role up your sleeves for the needle.
You'll die with bare arms.
2007-03-01 11:07:46 · answer #5 · answered by ? 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
There is no connection. In the US, there is only electrocution and gas chamber for the death penalty......
2007-03-01 11:06:18 · answer #6 · answered by pnk517 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sorry? I don't make the connection?
2007-03-01 11:04:49 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
There is no connetion there whatsoever.
2007-03-01 11:09:10 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋