2007-02-28 23:47:24 · 11 answers · asked by So-phis-ti-cat 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
With freedom of expression comes responsibility. I find any lyrics that profess violence to one person or a group of people due to differences of opinion, culture, or political reasons, is flat wrong. If it ever did lead to a killing or a beating, the group or the singer who performed the lyrics, along with the writer, should be held as an accessory to the murder or charge of violence. A lot of that happened with rap--east coast vs west coast, etc. A few artists were killed, like Tupac. That's totally irresponsible in a fatal way!
2007-02-28 23:54:40 · answer #1 · answered by gone 6 · 1⤊ 3⤋
Oh why single out homophobic lyrics. What about all the RAP music(?) that talks about popping caps on cops, banging bitches. I'm sure there are other examples I just don't feel like listing them.
That would have been a really good question--- But you stuck one word in there there wasn't needed. Homophobic. The implication is it's ONLY homophobic lyrics advocating violence you are concerned about.
And how do you determine the lyrics are homophobic? Has the author been clinically diagnosed homophobic? A phobia is a mental disorder, an unreasonable fear. I don't like black widow spiders. I kill them when ever I find them. That's not out of fear. I just don't think it's rational to allow something to crawl around my house that could hurt my grandchildren.
Aren't murder and assault crimes no matter what the reason?
2007-03-01 00:07:33 · answer #2 · answered by namsaev 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Since - people have free will homophobic lyrics are not an incitement to murder. We all have brains and know right from wrong. So if you murder someone that instinct was already in you
and you have no one to blame, but yourself.
2007-02-28 23:55:07 · answer #3 · answered by David B 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
In some jurisdictions, the writer/singer can be charged with murder as a principal by inducement, but in such cases you will have to prove criminal intent. In other words, unless you can prove that the singer/writer intentionally made those songs to induce others to kill homosexuals, then there is no crime. It would then be simply considered an expression of a sentiment by the singer/writer.
2007-02-28 23:56:14 · answer #4 · answered by Ray 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Lyrics are a form of expression and should be treated as such. Everybody has a right to have an opinion and also to express it.
People have a choice to listen or not.
2007-02-28 23:52:54 · answer #5 · answered by speckie 2 · 3⤊ 1⤋
People will always hate eachother, whether it be Man City and Man Utd. They will always be intolerance in the world. Face it. So therefore, why force people to change, the more you want them to change, the more stuck in their ways they become. I really hate the intolerance brigade who claim because you believe something different to them you are intolerant. Fcuk off thats what I say to them.
2007-03-01 02:38:57 · answer #6 · answered by Nelson 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's freedom of speech. People have the right to speak their minds, even if this means upsetting people through racism, sexism or Homophobia.
2007-03-01 01:31:30 · answer #7 · answered by Micheal 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
lyrics are never an incitement to murder.
2007-02-28 23:50:46 · answer #8 · answered by glass. 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
they are just words , the incitement is from the hate and intolerances you were raised with...you can hate something without being phobic about it...i hate cats but have yet to kill one...same with gays...live and let live
2007-02-28 23:54:50 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
They are incitement without a doubt
2007-02-28 23:50:26 · answer #10 · answered by Sir Sidney Snot 6 · 0⤊ 3⤋