My husband worked for 1.5 hours and then was rained out of a jobsite and sent home. Does the employer have to pay a min. of 4 hours for the day?? If there is a labor law that states that -- please give me a link. Thanks
2007-02-28 16:56:40 · 3 answers · asked by TALLgirl 3 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
In general, there should be a stand by pay for the person who is ready to work but the circumstances beyond his control do not allow him to do so.
Some progressive organizations, however, are very conscious about costs that they make remedies to avoid the costs by sending the people away from work and not pay the person involved.
Normally, wage payment rule on this matter is based on the companies' policy. Some companies are really super good and they pay the people but some companies wait for complaints before the labor department in order to act even if there are precedence in the past.
I think there is no labor law but it is through complaints to labor dept. that this matter will be highlighted.
2007-03-06 14:50:31 · answer #1 · answered by PJA 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Go to the State of California website and check in the Department of Industrial Relations or the Department fo Fair Employment and Housing. One of those will have the answer.
2007-03-06 12:36:52 · answer #2 · answered by KB 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the CIA doesnt pay very good. But they do have there perks.
2007-03-01 01:00:52 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋