Probabilty Question Please Help.?

Question

A bag contains 2 white marble and 3 blue marbles. Marble are drawn out of the bag one at a time and the color recorded; the selected marbels are replaced into the bag after each draw. What is the theoretical probobility that one blue marble is drawn first, followed by two whites? Express your answer as a fraction, a decimal, and a percent.


Please help me.
I am so confused.

would it be 6/25?

because 2/5 x 3/5

Answer 1

first 3/5 (for the blue one you have 3 blues and two whites)
then 2/4 (for the first white, it is over four because you only have 4 balls now), then 1/3 (because you have three balls in the bag and only one is white)

Now you just multiply (3/5)(2/4)(1/3) = 6/60 = 1/10 = .1 = 10%

Answer 2

Since a marble is replaced after it is drawn, then all you have to do is multiply the individual probabilities of each draw. What happens on one draw doesn't effect the others.

So, the probability of drawing the blue marble first is 3/5, because there are 3 ways of drawing a blue marble from the bag of 5 marbles. The probability of drawing a white marble next is 2/5, because we put that blue marble back in it is like the first draw never happened. The same is true for the third draw.

So, the probability of drawing a blue, then a white, and then a white is (3/5)*(2/5)*(2/5) = 12/125 = 0.096 = 9.6%

Answer 3

There are five marbles in the bag, and (since you replace them after each draw) there will always be five marbles there. The probability of drawing white, then, is 2/5 or 40% on any one draw. Similarly, the probability of drawing blue on any one draw is 3/5 or 60%. The chances of drawing one blue and then two whites would be:

(3/5)(2/5)(2/5) = 12/125

In other words, in three draws, there are 125 possible ways to draw the marbles. Twelve of them will be blue - white - white.

I expect you can get the decimal and the percent from that.

Answer 4

do your own hw kid.