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population

2007-02-28 06:41:57 · 2 answers · asked by tater_tot_boy 1 in Arts & Humanities History

2 answers

Because of unbridled poverty, and because their natural resources did not go to helping their own people but rather to the big corporations from other countries (particular the US) who the Latin Americans felt were raping their countries' resources..

Chow!!

2007-02-28 07:15:53 · answer #1 · answered by No one 7 · 0 0

it wasnt the countries who revolted (who did the countries revolt against?), but the popular classes for those countries who revolted. Mainly these people "revolted" because the means were in the hands of too few and not shared amongst the many, not to sound marxist (im not). Mainly, even after the revolutions of independance (1810-1830 around), the land (Latin America being, untill recently, essentially agricultural) was still in the hand of the rich and the Caudillos in government were doing nothing to help the poor, who were just exploited. Each "revolting" party had extremely similar ideas for mobilising popular approbation: land reform through replacing present government. of course, it was never so simple since it wasnt only the government who controlled the land. and also it wasnt at all easy to displace those who did. And obviously those who reached power were so easily corrupted. its a whole system. and the oligarchic families controling the land and power are mainly the same today.

2007-02-28 16:47:46 · answer #2 · answered by emele_ana 2 · 0 0

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