In the Nicomachean Ethics, Aristotle states that murder, theft and shamelessness are inherently bad things. What do you think he means by "shamelessness"? Why is "shamelessness" so offensive to Aristotle?
2007-02-27 14:46:21 · 4 answers · asked by sokrates 4 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Think life, liberty and the pursuit of property. Murder takes away life. Theft takes away property. Shamelessness takes away liberty. In other words, if you act in a shameless manner with no respect for the freedom of others you deny them their liberty. Aristotle was big on triangles and all lists having three things to them or being divisible by three. I might have used the word tyranny in place of shamelessness but then I would have been executed like Socrates for doing so. People get touchy about the word tyranny in political thought especially if they think you are calling them the tyrant.
2007-02-27 17:29:28 · answer #1 · answered by LORD Z 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Aristotle feels Shame should not be viewed as a virtue but it is more of a feeling like fear of dishonor or death. Thus Shame may be considered conditionally a good thing and Shamelessness is bad.
2007-02-27 14:56:04 · answer #2 · answered by Brahmanyan 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
He's saying that shame is what keeps people from doing bad things, so shamelessness is bad because it is the absence of morals.
2007-02-27 15:18:44 · answer #3 · answered by U Betcha 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Shamelessness implies arrogance. Arrogance implies lack of a logical mind against the unknown. I'm sure you know what he thought of that.
2007-02-27 15:36:56 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋