were guns used in the spanish conquest of mexico?

Question

did hernando cortes and his spanish army use guns when they were taking over the aztecs? when did the spanish first begin using guns in their conquests?

Answer 1

Yes and cannon too. The guns were called "blunderbusses" Sorry, I do not have a date for when the Spanish first started using guns, but they had them before Chris. Columbus discovered the new world.

Answer 2

The origin of guns and gunpowder will probably never be known with certainty. Gunpowder (black powder), now a 75:15:10 mixture of saltpeter (potassium nitrate, KNO3), charcoal, and sulfur, may have been developed in China, or possibly Arabia, Germany, or somewhere else entirely. It appears to have been widely known, with various recipes, before guns were invented. Guns were apparently unknown in Europe in the mid-13th century, but had appeared across Europe early in the 14th century (by 1326 at the latest) and almost every conceivable variation was tried during the next century, although the state of metallurgy and machining was generally inadequate. Terminology was developed, stolen, borrowed, and altered freely. Few people were literate, and standard spelling came centuries later. In any case, literate people (mostly priests) did not associate with gunners, who were thought to be in league with the Devil (a belief that seems still to prevail in some quarters).

All guns were originally cannon, fired from some sort of dug-in emplacement, and as a technical term, 'gun' still means a large artillery piece fired from a mount or emplacement. "Handguns" which could be carried (with both hands) and held for firing came somewhat later, as did wheels

the Spanish conquest of Mexico refers to the conquest of the Mexica/Aztec Empire by Hernán Cortés from 1519-1521.

Answer 3

I am not sure if they used guns, however I know they killed off most of the aztecs simply by brining over diseases that the aztecs had no immunity to.

Answer 4

replaced into u . s . of america created by skill of the UN to occupy a definite piece of territory which failed to on the time exist? on account it rather is the only way you get equivalency to the placement. If we've been given particular limitations and desperate to take land faraway from somebody else, then you fairly could desire to experience justified in giving it back to Mexico. meanwhile, I stay in Texas and what you have stated is a lie. we've not been settled by skill of Mexico, even nevertheless back interior the 1800's, we did take the land faraway from Mexico after being invited to settle there by skill of them. We created the Republic of Texas, which grew to become a US state in 1836. the placement replaced into settled by skill of the Treaty of Guadalupe Hidalgo in 1848. So for equivalency, i assume Israel could desire to could desire to get the Palestinians to sign a treaty allowing them to shop the land they took in 1967. See any signs and warning signs of that occuring?