i'm doing international law andd need to know whether a piece of valid prescriptive jurisdiction say prohibiting the causing of harm to a state's nationals anywhere in the world could be enforced by a state which didn't actually pass the legislation. so for instance if the United Kingdom made a law making it illegal for anyone anywhere to injure a British citizen (assuming that the law had a valid basses of prescriptive jurisdiction) could say France enforce this law in her courts, could france prosecute a mexican in franch courts for harming a British citizen in say Germany. if you can answer this question please give me links to reputable sites which can backup what you say with cases, laws etc. best answer goes to person who does this. thanks
2007-02-27
04:16:01
·
4 answers
·
asked by
H
2
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics