oscillations
2007-02-27 02:58:58 · 14 answers · asked by jkool 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
Must be infinite also.
Time Period = 2 pi (sqrt(length of pendulum / gravitational pull))
If length is infinite so is the Time Period.
2007-02-27 03:03:36 · answer #1 · answered by Doctor Q 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It is not a pendulum anymore to measure period for infinity.
.. T^2 = 4 (pi)^2 L /g
..
2007-02-27 05:19:56 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Infinite
2007-02-27 03:12:53 · answer #3 · answered by neel 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Simple common sense son, If you have an infinitely long pendulum, it will take infinitely long to move from one extreme to another extreme.
2007-02-27 03:08:31 · answer #4 · answered by nunna k 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It's infinite
since T = const. x sqrt(l/g) for a simple pendulum.
2007-02-27 03:02:02 · answer #5 · answered by physicist 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
INFINITY T=2(Pi) *(L/g)^1/2
2007-02-27 03:02:01 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Unlimited time period
2007-02-27 03:17:21 · answer #7 · answered by ars32 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
how can the length of a pendulum b infintiy???
2007-02-27 19:03:36 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Its around 84.8 minutes
2014-12-16 05:12:18 · answer #9 · answered by Ali 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
mostly infinity
2007-02-27 03:06:04 · answer #10 · answered by moin m 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋