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(an author who intends the book to be useful, not merely entertaining, but require interpretive effort - a didactic composition)

2007-02-27 02:21:40 · 2 answers · asked by Baron VonHiggins 7 in Arts & Humanities Books & Authors

Let's consider the Old and New Testaments as prime texts. Dramatization of the text should be put aside for the moment. When I put this question I was influenced by Spinoza's hermeneutics. He made a distinction between the intelligible and unintelligible. Is unintelligible subject matter useful for the reader, the one who wants to be instructed, to improve him or herself, to advance in some way, to read with a hope of one day being worthy of authorship?

Books with a preponderance of intelligible subject matter tend to proke little controversy; depending on the author's intention, controversy need not be harmful in the broad sense. And a highly intelligent author can treat of unintelligible subject matter in a compelling manner. Let's consider Spinoza as a prime author.

Feel free to edit your answers.

2007-02-27 14:57:05 · update #1

*read provoke for the above "proke"

2007-02-27 15:00:06 · update #2

2 answers

Hi Vonhiggins,
I would imagine, that many authors have the general story set out before they write the book... Some plots are too complicated to be made up as you go along....It would be down to the author in the end though....
>>>>>>>>
I'm guessing, that many authors "think" of the story first, and know the content.. and ending beforehand... I like tho, letting the story to run free around a main plot, or idea, so it evolves by itself...
It's like reading something I've never read.... when I do a first revision... ;)
>>>>>>
Edit : I'm pretty sure it has to be authorized by the subject hi/her/themselves or by the estate which handles that person's rights... Of course, if someone dies and leaves no caring heirs, I suppose anyone could claim authorization.....
this is the best, I can do...
>>>>>>


Thanks, for the question!;)

My regards!

Take care!

2007-02-27 12:01:01 · answer #1 · answered by Kimberly 6 · 0 0

Are you asking is an author's intent determined by his/her choice of subjects? If you are asking from a reader's perspective, then I will refer you to the "intentional fallacy." The fallacy in logic lies in the assumption that the author's intention can ever be determined, even if the author comes back later and says, "Well, I meant this..."

But if you are referring to a writer struggling to place meaning within the work, remember that the most moral and proselytizing novels feel forced and contrived. The best lessons are ones taught unintentionally.

If you want your work to be read deeply, then write deeply. If there is meaning to be found, someone is bound to dig deep enough; just remember, it may not happen in your lifetime. And you can't control those readers who misinterpret your work. There is always the possibility that you unintentionally wrote something in.

2007-02-27 11:16:33 · answer #2 · answered by sherrilyn1999 3 · 0 0

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