English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

I'm writing a book and I unwittingly used an orphanage in the XVIth century without knowing what status this sort of institution had at that time. Were they strictly affiliated to the church? Or could civilians also run one? If so, did they need some sort of legal approval? Or did they simply need the support of members of the nobility/rich individuals?

2007-02-26 23:05:21 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

3 answers

not entirely true, there were church-run organisations for "foundlings"-mainly unwanted children- ever since the High Middle Ages (circa 9th-10th century). Orphans were often reintegrated into the family or given to organisations (church military groups, court, etc.) As for the XVIth century, doubtless there were some, you should look it up in a book.

2007-02-26 23:37:52 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I doubt if there were any as early as the XVIth century. They really didn't come into being until the 19th century as part of the Poor Law and the Workhouses.

2007-02-26 23:23:46 · answer #2 · answered by rdenig_male 7 · 0 0

There are care houses, yet orphaned youthful ones are the most likely to be followed fantastically a lot immediatly i imagine, care houses are extra regularly for confusing youthful ones from confusing backgrounds.

2016-12-05 00:35:57 · answer #3 · answered by england 4 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers