2007-02-26 17:37:33 · 5 answers · asked by amrita b 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
I believe so, because friction is the force that opposes our bodies force. It lessons the amount of our force.
2007-02-26 17:45:34 · answer #1 · answered by smarti 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, that is refer to the definition of friction " A resistant force that acts in the opposite direction of the direction thatbody tends to move in," the friction chnges its direction according to any change of the body movment direction .
2007-02-26 18:05:45 · answer #2 · answered by a_ebnlhaitham 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yeah. If you have a part acting in the direction of the moving body, it is a part of the body, not the body itself, another system if you will.
2007-02-26 17:40:47 · answer #3 · answered by Scott and Friends 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mostly. It can be perpendicular to the motion also (like in the case of a car that is turning). So that is not exactly opposite.
2007-02-26 17:40:56 · answer #4 · answered by Ivhie 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
NO, for example in case of a rotating tyre it acts in the direction in which the tyre is rotating.
2007-02-26 21:16:23 · answer #5 · answered by Honey 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋