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it's a question in my biology practice problems. my friend and i were debating over it. she says it's 1/2, i say it's 1, and then 1/4. we just dont know what it is. can you please show the work and explain it?

2007-02-26 16:14:45 · 11 answers · asked by ♪寿司人♫ 3 in Science & Mathematics Biology

erm, please show the mathematical equation. i dont have that kind of time to write down all possible combinations and choseing the right one on a timed 10 minute test!

2007-02-27 11:25:52 · update #1

11 answers

The chance of any one outcome is 1/16, but there are six ways to get two girls and two boys:
BBGG
BGGB
GGBB
BGBG
GBGB
GBBG

So the odds are 6/16 or 3/8.

You have to use the "Choose Function" to avoid listing. Let N be the number of children and K be the number of boys. Then the probability P of K boys out of N children is {(N!)/[(K!)*(N-K)!]/(2^N)}.

! means Factorial.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binomial_coefficient

2007-02-26 16:50:13 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 4 0

1

2016-12-20 13:59:20 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Some Dude nailed it ... the answer is 6/16. or 3/8.

The way to do it is to write down all the possible ways to have four children (16 total), and then put a * next to the ones that have two boys and two girls (as order doesn't matter).

BBBB
BBBG
BBGB
BBGG *

BGBB
BGBG *
BGGB *
BGGG

GBBB
GBBG *
GBGB *
GBGG

GGBB *
GGBG
GGGB
GGGG

6 stars, out of 16 possible combinations.

2007-02-26 19:25:27 · answer #3 · answered by secretsauce 7 · 2 0

some Dude nailed it ... the answer is 6/16. or 3/8. the answer to do that is to jot down down each of the accessible procedures to have 4 children (16 finished), and then positioned a * next to those who adventure 2 boys and a pair of ladies human beings (as order does no longer situation). BBBB BBBG BBGB BBGG * BGBB BGBG * BGGB * BGGG GBBB GBBG * GBGB * GBGG GGBB * GGBG GGGB GGGG 6 stars, out of 16 accessible mixtures.

2016-10-17 09:15:41 · answer #4 · answered by lubin 4 · 0 0

If you can be pregnant or if you have infertility problems I reccomend to follow this method http://pregnancy.toptips.org

Many factors can cause a couple trouble in conceiving a baby, I'll list a few of the most common ones in women:
Anorexia or other dietary dysfunctions
Lacking amounts of FSH and LH are produced, so ovaries aren't as functional as they could be, and so not many eggs are produced
Stress, causing periods to become irregular
Medications such as cancer treatments,antidepressants, hormone therapy, pain killers, and antipsychotic drugs can all cause temporary infertility.

With the method that I posted above you will be able to get pregnant!

2014-09-26 23:19:02 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Now everyone can cure infertility using this natural remedy http://pregnancyhelps.info
infertility can run in the family and one of the first things the doctor asks you when you go to a fertility clinic is your family history regarding cases of infertility or other reproductive issues.
If infertility is caused by genetic disorder then it's not unusual that one of the kids (your mom) doesn't have it and another does (your aunt).
two months of trying is still to early to be concerned about the fact that you might be infertile and it's also quite early to go to a fertility specialist. Go to a regular Obgyb to get a closer insight and see what ways there are are to improve your fertility rate.
Also remove alcohol, caffeine and cigarettes from your life because they might influence your chances too. Stress is also a risk factor when it comes to infertility.

2014-12-21 15:03:08 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

well genetically a girl has a gene makeup of XX and a boy XY so it would be a 50/50 chance each time to get a girl or boy. the girl would always give an X and the boy could give either an X or anY.

2007-03-03 08:41:28 · answer #7 · answered by Paul L 1 · 0 1

Since each pregnancy has a 50% chance of being a girl and 50% chance of being boy:
I'm pretty sure you multiply that by each pregnancy:
1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2 = 1/16 of a chance or 0.0625

2007-02-26 16:33:39 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2 4

each individual pregnancy has a 50-50 chance of being boy or girl in no particular order. 1st is 50-50. 2nd is 50-50. 3rd id 50-50. 4th is 50-50.

2007-02-26 16:25:20 · answer #9 · answered by winkcat 7 · 0 3

Wow,

GGBB, GBBG, GGBB.....????? Get a clue!!!
Punnett Square gives you a 50/50 for every child...multiply it

2007-03-05 15:09:23 · answer #10 · answered by browning.338 2 · 0 2

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