There is hereby imposed on the income of every individual a tax equal to the following percentages of the wages (3121 (a)) received by him with respect to employment (3121 (b))...“employment” means any service, performed by an employee...
(c) Employee
For purposes of this chapter, the term “employee” includes an officer, employee, or elected official of the United States, a State, or any political subdivision thereof, or the District of Columbia, or any agency or instrumentality of any one or more of the foregoing. The term “employee” also includes an officer of a corporation.
2007-02-26 09:25:57 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Other - Politics & Government
the federal income tax does not apply to most of us...which is why former IRS agents don't file.
the biggest scam in this country is the one ppl keep playing on themselves convincing themselves that they are required to pay this...
2007-02-26 09:50:22 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Absolutely not!!! I receive Social Security Disability and an extra income of alimony. All my so called income is spent on medicine. I have no deductions, as I am not a landowner, or receive any income from where I might finds deductions. It's not a reality to charge me income tax when I have absolutely no money.
2007-02-26 09:57:54 · answer #2 · answered by Eatbugs 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
With thousands of seasoned tax attorneys out there, you'd think one of them might have figured out that the common wage earner doesn't have to pay income tax.
2007-02-26 09:35:23 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, yes. Why wouldn't it? I'm a wage earner, and I expect that the government wants a cut of my income.
2007-02-26 09:29:09 · answer #4 · answered by Scotty Doesnt Know 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I think you are missing some sections... as much as people want to say its "unconstitutional" the laws are there and you have to pay. No way around it.
2007-02-26 09:32:36 · answer #5 · answered by a 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋