2007-02-26 07:06:39 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Health ➔ Women's Health
The previous answers are sort of right, but a little off. It does have to do with a woman's period/cycle. I am a former nurse. In the first 21 days a woman does not have her period. For days 3-9 she is most fertile/likely to become pregnant. In days 22-28 she does not take her birthcontrol pills, if she takes some, so that she has her period during this time. If she is not taking bc pills then this is still the time in which her body will have a period and it will shed the lining of the uterus. By saying her 28 days is up is to say that she is back to day 1... has stopped her period and is "good to go". The end!
2007-02-26 07:16:35 · answer #1 · answered by Desiree M 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
a womans menstural cycle goes roughly on a 28 day cycle, every 28 days she bleeds....
2007-02-26 15:09:57 · answer #2 · answered by mazgm1975 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
28 days? You mean to live? Then uh....she doesn't have a very long time before she's dead.....unless ur talking about something else ur question is very vague.
2007-02-26 15:09:48 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
28 days for what? are you talking about pregnancy? fool. why put yourself and your partner in this position? bag it up.
2007-02-26 15:10:44 · answer #4 · answered by shar71vette 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
LOL that she's ready to start her period again!!
2007-02-26 15:10:10 · answer #5 · answered by Kat 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
end of her monthly period
2007-02-26 15:13:50 · answer #6 · answered by katy 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋