2007-02-26 03:05:01 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Stalin was more contained in his killing...
2007-03-03 23:29:00 · answer #1 · answered by Juliette 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because most people focus on Hitler since his atrocities happened all over Europe, while Stalin's were confined to the USSR.
And of course since the US and USSR where allies during WW2 the genocide that Stalin perpetrated was ignored.
2007-02-26 12:04:32 · answer #2 · answered by ajtheactress 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
warren1515 ... Stalin was the ruler of USSR .. and not only Russia. my own family were oppressed by Stalin regime (being Romanians)
Why Hitler and not Stalin .. well Stalin was a wise player. Most of his atrocities appeared after his death. More of, he was a winner in the war and as we know winners usually write the history.
2007-02-26 13:22:50 · answer #3 · answered by kalatorul 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
During his lifetime, Stalin limited his atrocities to his own Russia and did NOT commit genocide. Hitler spread his atrocities across Europe and did practice genocide by trying to exterminate the Jews. Stalin eventually was dishonored and was seen as the tyrant he was by the Soviets, but only after his death.
Chow!!
2007-02-26 13:00:31 · answer #4 · answered by No one 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Stalin did his in the USSR over a longer period of time, while Hitler did his over Europe in a shorter space of time.
2007-02-26 13:32:46 · answer #5 · answered by onlybygrace 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That is because in academia and in the media, only Nazism is hit (and rightly so), but communism is let almost completely off the hook, even though their atrocities are commensurable|
This is due to the heavy Marxist bias in higher education (and even in public education), and in the media, that tends to reduce all of reality to matter which acts according to material laws, according to the laws of *dialectic,* where the "other" is essentially your enemy|
The institutions that run our Western societies, at the highest levels, have a definite philosophical and ideological bias|
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2007-02-26 13:15:10 · answer #6 · answered by Catholic Philosopher 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Basically it boils down to two reasons:
1) USSR was our ally in WW2 and we didn't want to make them look bad at the time.
2) we didn't conquer the country and find definite proof of his atrocities as we did with Germany.
"We" meaning the western allies
2007-03-05 18:05:01 · answer #7 · answered by rohak1212 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Anything that went on behind the IRON CURTAIN (STALIN) was very secretive.
2007-03-04 21:51:59 · answer #8 · answered by LINDA D. 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
hitler tried to destroy groups of people in any brutal and possible way. stalin killed people, but he did not want to destroy entire ethnic groups, only ppl that he thought could try to kill him.
2007-03-04 00:37:38 · answer #9 · answered by arzbarz 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋