2007-02-26 02:50:05 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
2 in / (1/4 in) = 8
So the distance would be 8 x 50 = 400 miles
2007-02-26 02:53:02 · answer #1 · answered by Someone 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1/4" x 4 = 1"
1/4" = 50 miles
so 2" = 8 x 1/4" or 400 miles
2007-02-26 02:53:27 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
400 miles (divide 2 by 1/4 = 8 then multiply 8 by 50 miles).
2007-02-26 02:53:37 · answer #3 · answered by freddy the newf 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
400 miles.
2 inches is 8 (1/4) inches *50 miles/(1/4) inches
2007-02-26 03:04:47 · answer #4 · answered by Matthew P 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Ooh i like those =] Wellll... you additionally could make the size less demanding by utilising asserting that a million inch = 17.5 miles. Then write out the converstion: 8.5 inches = (17.5miles/1inch)... (So all you're doing is multiplying 8.4 by utilising 17.5 because of the fact the inches on precise and on backside cancel out...) and additionally you get 148.seventy 5 miles. the easily distance between the cities is 148.seventy 5 miles =] uncertain in case you had to around... yet once you had to apply sig figs it would be a hundred and fifty miles.
2016-10-02 00:35:25 · answer #5 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There are four fourths in 1 inch, so there are eight fourths in two inches. 8 x 50 miles = 400 miles.
2007-02-26 02:56:23 · answer #6 · answered by cronman2000 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
well there are 8 quarter inches in 2 inches so multipy 8 by 50 (miles)
that gives u 400 miles
2007-02-26 02:53:56 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
1/4 in<---->50 miles
2 in<--> 2/(1/4) x 50 miles = 8 x 50miles = 400 miles
2007-02-26 02:53:47 · answer #8 · answered by Como 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That would be some 400 miles by friend.
2007-02-26 02:53:54 · answer #9 · answered by Ron P 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
400 mil
2007-02-26 02:53:47 · answer #10 · answered by mitchie123 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋