English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

I belive if I take 2pi integral from 0 to pi/4 cosx sqrt[1 + sin^2x] dx I will get the correct area is my thinking accurate?

2007-02-25 20:30:03 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

your disc will have a radius of y = cosx
Area of the disc is πcos^2x, so you have
π/4
∫cos^2x dx =
0

π/4
∫(1/2(1 + cos2x) dx =
0
π/8 - 0 + (1/4)sin(π/4) - 0 =
π/8 + (1/8)√2 =
V = 0.56948

but you wanted area:
dS = 2π√(1 + sin^2x) dx
S = π√2

You are correct.

2007-02-25 21:15:41 · answer #1 · answered by Helmut 7 · 0 0

i believe if you take 2pi internally, that you will have a 2x belly ache in the morning

2007-02-25 20:34:45 · answer #2 · answered by Matthew Q 1 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers