The Treaty of Versailles placed the blame on Germany, but who, in your opinion, was most responsible? Explanations of your opinion will be greatly appreciated as well.
2007-02-25 16:32:16 · 7 answers · asked by sparklycrayons 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
The Archduke was Austrian- he was killed by Serbians.
While I don't agree that Germany was entirely to blame for the war, I do think they probably bear more blame than any other single nation. In the chain of events that started with the assasination and ended with war, Serbia was quite willing to placate the Austrians, largely due to pressure from Russia. When Russia made it clear that they would fight to protect Serbia, Austria-Hungary was in a position where they could have gotten anything from Serbia short of taking it over without fighting, and almost certain defeat if they went ahead and attacked Serbia. It was at this point, where the war should have been averted, that Germany gave A-H a "blank check" that no matter what happened, they could count on German support. It was this assurance from Germany that led A-H to invade Serbia. So while Russia pressured their ally, Serbia, to go to great lengths to avoid war, Germany gave A-H little reason to negotiate at all.
2007-02-25 17:09:28 · answer #1 · answered by Captain Hammer 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Really all of them (with all the alliances in Europe). Germany was only blamed at the Treaty of Versailles because they lost and the other countries wanted revenge on them.
2007-02-26 11:30:09 · answer #2 · answered by Kayte 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
First of all, the man who killed archduke Ferdinand was a Serbian freedom fighter, the archduke was an Austrian. Look it up.
It wasn't really any single country's fault, in my opinion, but an ossified system of alliances combined with a military-industrial complex that had been completely divorced from the diplomatic process. Once armies started moving, the diplomats were helpless to stop them, and the alliance system of the time guaranteed that countries that had no real interest in the conflict were drawn into it.
2007-02-26 00:43:43 · answer #3 · answered by 2Bs 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
no one country was to blame for the the war.many would say Austria or Germany but with the industrial might and want for expansion of territory all are to blame.nationalism was running extremely high at the time and no matter what would have happened ,l believe the war could not have been averted.once that shoot was heard all hell broke loose.l do believe that blaming Germany and punishing her for it was only the spark that would cause the second world war.even to this day we are still feeling the affects of that war
2007-02-27 22:51:23 · answer #4 · answered by pastwarrier 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I personally blame the Oompa Loompas. They caused it all by controlling the market price of chocolate. It caused the Serbians to have to change from drinking hot-chocolate to cabbage soup almost over night.
Not only that but the high cost of the chocolate caused it to become a status symbol and so much of it was consumed by royalty that old Archduke got the runs from eating so much. This caused him to have to stop his car to hit the toliet. And gave the Serbian soup drinkers an opportunity to toss a bomb (WMD) into his car. Aside from killing the Archduke, it simply ruined his wifes dress.
During the treaty of Versailles Loompaland was never called in to give an account for their actions. Just goes to show you who is calling the shots in the world today.
2007-02-26 22:39:19 · answer #5 · answered by Fester 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
The Austro-Hungarian Empire was much more insistent on its muscle-flexing in the Balkans than any country would be now, and the various treaty obligations sucked the rest of Europe into a war that needn't have happened.
2007-02-26 00:45:09 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Austria- they killed the archduke ferdinand which started the WHOLE mess, look it up
2007-02-26 00:37:59 · answer #7 · answered by sufreshman14 2 · 0⤊ 3⤋