The two events are independent.
2007-02-25 09:53:47 · 3 answers · asked by Nathalie V 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Weather
There's a 40% chance of rain on day one.
For there to be a 20% chance of rain on two days then there must be a 50% chance of it raining on day 2. (40/100 x 50/100 = 20/100).
The chance of it raining on either day is 90% (40% + 50%).
2007-02-25 10:23:22 · answer #1 · answered by Trevor 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If both days have a chance of rain, no matter what percentage, then one must assume there is also a chance for no rain. If you were to take away the certain percentage and simply state "there is a chance for rain", you could automatically assume 50%. If there is a chance for rain on two days, the formula is the same and would average out to 50%. It may, or may not, rain on one or both, or none, of those two days.
2007-02-26 09:05:40 · answer #2 · answered by John 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Fair.
2007-02-25 10:03:15 · answer #3 · answered by Dr. J 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋