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2007-02-25 07:54:46 · 18 answers · asked by whatshappenin? 6 in Society & Culture Cultures & Groups Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender

wouldnt that mean that homosexuals are having sex with heterosexuals?

2007-02-25 08:03:50 · update #1

18 answers

I think I bought my gay jeans at a resale shop.
oops, you meant genes.

2007-03-05 02:05:05 · answer #1 · answered by selms01 3 · 0 0

Ummm....through genetics? The same way any other trait is passed on. While not scientifically proven, my belief is that the "gay gene" as you called is is a recessive trait. This would, in a Punit square (a way chart used to measure the probability of traits in the next generation.) I also believe that it is caused/ triggered by more than one gene considering the fact that there are different levels of "gayness". By this I mean that there are bi people who lean towards one gender more than the other and such. Also, although most gay people do not actually have sex with the opposite sex, many lesbians use artificial insemination, and I have heard that some gay men will have a woman have the child, but contribute sperm. This would allow the "gay gene" to be passed from generation to generation. Bi people also sometimes have children. If it is a recessive trait, straight people could also be carriers for the "gay gene" The fact that there are different levels of "gayness" supports the theory that it is possibly affected by more than one gene.


This is a purely scientific theory on my part. I apologize for any offense I may have caused, and it was not intentional. My only intention was to objectively state my theory and the reasons for that theory. If I offended you or you have questions, please e-mail me. I try to be diplomatic, but I am not always good at it.

2007-02-25 19:02:26 · answer #2 · answered by Rachel 3 · 1 0

Assuming there is such thing as a gay gene (no such thing has been conclusively proven as of yet), then it would get passed on in exactly the same way any other gene would.

Maybe a review of biology would be helpful.

Just because two parents who procreate have certain characteristics doesn't mean that they create exact genetic copies of themselves; because both sets of the parents' genes (each of which have two 'parts', either dominant or recessive) are reshuffled, there are four possibilities of how they could mix. We assume that a gay gene would be a recessive trait, since it's only apparent in a minority of the community, and recessive genes only express themselves when together (i.e. the only way a child will be gay would be if both parents had dominant-recessive, and each of their recessives happened to combine). So, potentially, all straight people would have either dominant-dominant, or dominant-recessive, and nothing short of genetic testing would prove which was which or the possibility that the parents could produce a gay child.

But then again, that's assuming that gay genes exist.

Hope that helps!

2007-02-25 16:15:57 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

An October 2004 scientific research publication stated that scientists at the University of Padua have found that women tend to have more children when they inherit the same - as yet unidentified - genetic factors linked to homosexuality in men. This fertility boost more than compensates for the lack of offspring fathered by gay men, and keeps the “gay” genetic factors in circulation. Mothers of gay men produced an average of 2.7 babies compared with 2.3 born to mothers of straight men. And maternal aunts of gay men had 2.0 babies compared with 1.5 born to the maternal aunts of straight men.

Another study published in Human Genetics in February 2006 examined X chromosome inactivation in mothers of gay sons and mothers whose sons were not gay. Normally, X chromosome inactivation occurs at random: half of the cells in a woman's body will have one X chromosome inactivated, while the other half inactivates the other chromosome. Researchers found that in about a quarter of mothers who had at least two gay sons every single cell in these women inactivated the same X chromosome while only 4 percent of mothers with no gay sons showed this type of extreme skewing.

A Canadian university study published in June of 2006 stated that, although researchers have known for years that a man's likelihood of being gay rises with the number of older biological brothers, that the new study found that the so-called "fraternal birth order effect" persists even if gay men were raised away from their biological families.

A January 2007 Australian report suggested to be gay you need to receive one gay gene from both parents, and that those with only one gay gene have a selective advantage because they are heterosexual but have increased style, male sex drive, charm and seductiveness towards women.

2007-02-25 21:07:39 · answer #4 · answered by χριστοφορος ▽ 7 · 1 0

Through your jeans . Just kidding. Let's say both of my parents are alcoholics. I have 100 % chance of being prone to becoming an alcoholic. If both of my parents are gay ( but had me anyway ) I would be 100 % prone to being gay .
If my parents have diabetes , I am likely to have diabetes also. If only my mother had a heart condition and my father was allright , I would still have 50 % chance of having heart problems . So if one parent is gay, you have 50 % chance of being gay.

2007-03-05 00:23:14 · answer #5 · answered by westhighland 3 · 0 0

What? Homeosexual genes do not get "passed on". If there so happens to be a problem with a child then it is because of something that happened. Where did you draw your conclusion anyhow?

2007-03-03 08:24:59 · answer #6 · answered by ~Beauty is Beautiful~ 3 · 0 0

It has not been prove that homosexuality is hereditary.
The debate still is that it could be a convination of the Enviroment the person grows in and also genetic.
Yet there's no 100% proof of either one.

2007-02-25 17:48:58 · answer #7 · answered by Steph 4 · 2 0

The same way that the genes for being left or right handed are passed on - by the combination of DNA from parents, which are a combination of their parents and their parents and their parents.

-Rev. Jim Cunningham
King James Bible Ministry
www.GayChristianSurvivors.com - "Refuting the church's anti-gay doctrines with the Word of God"

2007-02-25 16:33:28 · answer #8 · answered by kjv_gods_word 5 · 0 2

I don't think they get "passed on". I am trying to figure out how one would prefer their own kind than the opposite sex. I am not trying to be mean or judgemental; just wondering...

2007-03-05 10:25:53 · answer #9 · answered by Judith H 5 · 0 0

all the time, that's what happens when you force people to deny who they are and accept what society considers normal... Evolutionary theory would suggest if you let people be gay, they will dissapear as maladaptive genes

2007-03-05 11:25:48 · answer #10 · answered by Magi 5 · 0 0

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